“For God so loved the world that he gave his only Son, so that everyone who believes in him may not perish but may have eternal life.” — John 3:16 (NRSV).

"’That whosoever believeth on him may not perish.’ It is a remarkable commendation of faith, that it frees us from everlasting destruction. For he intended expressly to state that, though we appear to have been born to death, undoubted deliverance is offered to us by the faith of Christ; and, therefore, that we ought not to fear death, which otherwise hangs over us. And he has employed the universal term whosoever, both to invite all indiscriminately to partake of life, and to cut off every excuse from unbelievers. Such is also the import of the term world, which he formerly used; for though nothing will be found in the world that is worthy of the favor of God, yet he shows himself to be reconciled to the whole world, when he invites all men without exception to the faith of Christ, which is nothing else than an entrance into life.”

Um Okay. I think I’m with you there, brother John.

Here you are clearly leaving exegesis behind and trying to reconcile the verse with a preconceived theology. How can 'life' be promised to those incapable of receiving it? It can't. How can God 'invite all indiscriminately to partake of life, and to cut off every excuse from unbelievers' (as you say) if God is choosing to withhold the ability to believe from some?

You can't have it both ways. I mean, I know you're a logical guy, John. Isn't it possible that Augustine was wrong in the Enchiridion — where this same logical inconsistency can be found?

Now you are saying that redemption precedes salvation, because the ability to believe is itself the result of that salvation. If the ability to believe is wholly the decision of God, then it is God who has determined the issues of life and death. It is your theology that has dictated that "redemption, in the order of time, goes before salvation" not the text itself.

I agree that part of the message of this verse is 'that in Christ we regain the possession of life, of which we are destitute in ourselves' but it is also a universal offer of eternal life (thus, it says: "whoever") — a possibility your theology does not seem to allow for! In my opinion, making sense of this verse requires a concept of Prevenient Grace, which allows fallen humans to respond with faith to the offer of life.

Otherwise, from your point of view, the verse should read either:

"For God so loved the elect that he gave his only Son, so that everyone who belongs to the elect and, thus, has faith, may therefore believe in him unto eternal life."

or, more simply:

"For God so loved the world that he gave his only Son, so that everyone who has eternal life may believe in him."

But, surely you see, don’t you, it doesn’t say either of those things. You’ve turned it around backwards. This is no longer the Scripture with which you began.

(Start gathering the wood again, boys, I think there’s another heretic in town.)